Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What are some possible reasons for an unfaithful spouse to not confess their affair to their partner and instead end it without telling them?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Sapiente nemo autem perspiciatis.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Fighters react to Kamaru Usman's rebound win vs. Joaquin Buckley at UFC on ESPN 69 - MMA Junkie

You'll usually find your answer there.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Read also: